I'm not sure how exactly to put what I'm trying to ask into words, so I apologize if they way i did word is confusing. Now, I dont mean are homosexuals more prone to developing a :insert something here: fetish then say a bisexual or heterosexual, rather what I'm trying to ask is more on the lines of if a heterosexual man has a foot fetish would he only be aroused by a woman's feet or would he be aroused by both women's and men's feet regardless of the fact that he is straight and only attracted to women?its just something i've always wondered
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